Orthodox Monotheists believe in One God, the Father.
John 17:3 And this is life in the age to come, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.
1 Cor 8:5-6 For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many gods and many lords), (6) yet for us there is One God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we are for him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ through whom are all things, and we are through him.
But the question hangs in the air, if Jesus is not God, then Who was he? Or, What was he? Or, Was he? Among those who subscribe to the Monotheist Christian view, there is a difference of belief.
Some believe that Jesus pre-existed only in the mind and purpose of God. This is sometimes called “notional preexistence.” This is usually known by those who term themselves Biblical Unitarians.
Other Unitarian Christians — sometimes referred to themselves as Arians [and some are actually known as Binatarians] – and believe that Jesus was a spirit being in association with God, though separate from Him, and the first and only direct creation by Him – everything else being created by God through this pre-incarnate Jesus. There are Bible passages that seem to support the idea that Jesus lived in heaven prior to coming to earth. Arius was a Bishop of the third and fourth centuries taught that Jesus was a created being, and not co-eternal with the Father, who pre-existed his human birth.
The author of this article once held the Arian view, and relinquished it with great reluctance. The first step was to realize that certain pre-conceived notions I held were not scripturally valid. It is not necessary to detail those here. The second step was to examine the concept of “Son of God.” As noted in Proposition # 2 (found on this site) Luke 1:35 clearly associates Jesus’ being the Son of God with his miraculous conception and birth. At Luke 3:21-22 and Luke 9:28-36 his Sonship was verbally confirmed by God at his baptism and at the Transfiguration. And it was demonstrably confirmed with his resurrection. (see Romans 1:4)
What I needed to be an Arian was a passage in the Hebrew Scriptures that explicitly associated Jesus’ being the Son of God with his having a prehuman creation. I found none. There are a couple of passages that refer to him as Son; however, these were in prophetic contexts. Finally, I found a verse which, for me, strongly suggested that he did not have a pre-human existence. Psalm 22, which 108 opens with the words, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” is recognized by all Christian commentators as Messianic. Verse 10 reads, “On You was I cast from my birth, and from my mother’s womb You have been my God.” It seemed to me that if Jesus had a pre-human existence, God would have been his God from before his mother’s womb.
With these thoughts in mind let’s examine some of the scriptural evidence that seems to suggest otherwise.
John 6:28-62
One such passage is John 6:28-62. This passage frequently speaks of Jesus as being the Bread that came “out of” (Gk., ek) heaven. The Jews said to Jesus,
31 “Our fathers ate the manna in the desert, as it is written, He gave them bread out of heaven to eat.” 32…Then Jesus said to them, “Truly, Truly, I say to you, Moses did not give you the bread out of heaven, but my Father gives you the true bread 109 out of heaven. 33 For the bread of God is that which comes down out of heaven and gives life to the world.” … 38“For I have come down from [Gk., apo] heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of Him who sent me”…. 41 Therefore the Jews grumbled about him because he said, “I am the bread that came down out of heaven.” 42 And they said, “Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How does he now say, ‘I have come down out of [ek] heaven’?” … 50 [Jesus speaking:] “This is the bread that comes down out of heaven so that a person may eat of it and not die: 51 I am the living bread that came down out of heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. Indeed, the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh….”
Concerning the Greek word ek which is translated as “out of” above and is used repeatedly throughout this passage, Vine’s Expository Dictionary says, “The primary meaning of ek is out of, …Since apo and ek are both frequently to be translated by from they often approximate closely in meaning. The distinction is largely seen in this, that apo suggests a starting point from without, 110 ek from within; this meaning is often involved in apo, but apo does not give prominence to the withinness as ek usually does.”
Before jumping to the conclusion that this passage of scripture supports the pre-human existence of Jesus — a jump which, considering the quote from Vine’s Dictionary, appears quite logical — notice what was said concerning the manna which Moses gave to the Israelites in the wilderness. In John 6:31 this manna is also said to be “bread out of [ek] heaven”!
Concerning the manna’s formation Exodus 16:13-15 reports:
“…in the morning the dew lay around the camp. When the dew that lay had gone, behold, on the surface of the wilderness was a small round thing, small as the frost on the ground. When the children of Israel saw it, they said one to another, ‘What is it?’ – because they did not know what it was. Moses said to them, ‘It is the bread that Yahweh has given you to eat.’”
There is nothing here that suggests that the manna was literally in heaven before appearing on the ground. How, then, is it out of heaven?
James 1:17 helps us to understand. It reads,
“Every good gift and every perfect present is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow.”
So, the manna the Israelites ate in the wilderness was not in heaven prior to its formation on earth, but it was a miraculous gift provided by God. Now notice what Jesus said in John 6:51,
“Indeed, the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh.”
To those using this passage from John 6 to prove Jesus’ pre-existence, we could ask, was his flesh in heaven before he was born on earth? No, of course not; his flesh was formed in Mary’s womb after his conception.
In this entire passage, when speaking of Jesus’ coming “out of” heaven, the “bread of life” is mentioned in every context except one. In John 6:42 his opposers are saying what they thought he claimed. In John 6:38 Jesus does speak of being “from” heaven (in the James 1:17 sense of the expression, quoted above), without the bread of life being mentioned in context. But on that occasion the preposition “apo” is used. Rather than his having personally come “out of” heaven, John 6 shows that it was his function as Savior, the “bread of life,” that has come “out of” heaven. No greater gift could the Father give to the world of mankind.
However, John 6:62 records Jesus as asking,
“Then what if you were to see the Son of man ascending to where he was before?”
This comment certainly seems to support the view that he had a pre-human existence. Before drawing this conclusion, let’s examine the context.
The beginning of this chapter noted that Jesus had gone up onto a mountain with his disciples. While there, crowds gathered and Jesus fed them to satisfaction using five loaves of bread and two fish. Those witnessing this miracle concluded that he was the promised prophet of the Scriptures. (John 6:3-14) Now, toward the end of this chapter — and the day after they had left the mountain — some who followed Jesus began to doubt the conclusion they had reached the day before because they misunderstood his teaching concerning the eating of his flesh and the drinking of his blood. So, Jesus’ question was to bring to their minds the previous situation, to paraphrase, ‘What if you see me ascend the mountain and again miraculously feed thousands, would you believe me to be the promised prophet again?’ Since many who followed him were motivated by the fleshly benefits of his miracles — rather than 114 awed by the spiritual significance — any conclusion they reached would be indecisive, changing at whim. (John 6:26-32, 55-56, 60-66; consider James 1:5-8) Colossians 1:15-17
Colossians 1:15-17
Understanding that John 6 focuses on Jesus’ preexistential purpose as Savior helps us to appreciate the correct meaning of other verses used by those believing in his pre-human existence. There are several texts which appear to indicate that Jesus participated in the creative events. For example, Colossians 1:15-17 speaks of him as
“the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation, for in him were created all things, the things in the heavens, and the things on the earth … all things through him and for him have been created. And he is before all things and all things in him have stood together.”
How, then, could “all things” be created “in,” “through,” and “for” Jesus, if he did not personally exist? How could he be the “firstborn” if he were not first, or “before all things” if he was not before?
Suppose that you were God, about to create other life-forms. You intend to create them as intelligent, free-moral agents; that is, they can think on their own, independent of your way of thinking if they wish. Would it not be logical to assume that at some point in time such intelligent, free-thinking beings would act contrary to your moral standards? Such an event would be highly probable. Therefore, realizing that a disruption would eventually take place within the created order, you choose to provide a means whereby it could be restored to the quality of your righteous standards. Without this means of restoration, or plan of salvation, God could not have created the universe in this particular fashion.
Thus, a significant component in God’s scheme of creation was the plan of salvation. This plan of salvation has as its foundation in a person, the Savior, Jesus Christ. Hence, he (through the plan of salvation) existed within the scheme of God “before” the creation, and the scheme of creation existed “in” him, and came into being “through” [because of, or on account of] him, even though he did not personally exist. As a reward for his faithfulness, God planned on giving him full control over creation, so in this way it was created “for” him.
To put it simply, God created everything with Jesus in mind. (1 Corinthians 3:11; 1 Peter 1:9-20). This concept may seem perplexing to the modern reader of the Bible; but keep in mind we are dealing with a culture and thought process far different than our own.
Jesus’ being “firstborn” does not prove pre-existence, as some claim. As God’s only Son born from a miraculous conception, he is, then, His firstborn.
But the text means more than simply this. In Bible times the firstborn son had certain legal rights and responsibilities. However, these privileges and duties could be given to a younger son if the oldest son defaulted in his responsibilities. For an example of this see 1 Chronicles 5:1. Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Ephraim, and Solomon had one or more older brothers, yet each came to have the birthright of the firstborn. Similarly, Jesus, the miraculously conceived Son of God, received the rights of inheritance forfeited by Adam, the miraculously created son of God. (Luke 3:38) Having received the rights of firstborn, thus, authority over all creation, he became the “firstborn of creation.” (Hebrews 1:10-12).
Hebrews 1:10-12
The understanding we have achieved with regard to Jesus’ role in the creation as explained above is applicable to any verse that reads similarly. But of those there is one which we need to look at more closely.
Hebrews 1:10-12 reads,
“And, You, Lord, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the works of your hands. They will perish, but you continue on, and they will all grow old like a garment, and you will roll them up like clothing, and they will be changed like a garment. But you are the same, and your years will not fail.”
Here it appears to say that the earth’s foundation was laid by Jesus and that the heavens are the works of his hands. How could this be if the foregoing is correct? This passage in Hebrews is a quote of Psalms 102:25-27 which is speaking of God and His hands. The writer of Hebrews re-applies this 118 passage to Jesus. [Notice that the verses say that the heavens and earth will “perish” and also be “changed.” How can both events take place?] Rather than speaking about the creation and destruction of the literal heavens and earth, it is talking about the perishing of the fallen condition in which the created order has come to be.
Romans 8:19-21 also speaks of this:
“For the creation waits with eager longing the revelation of the sons of God; for the creation was subjected to futility, not of its own will but by the will of Him who subjected it in hope; because the creation itself will be set free from its bondage to decay and obtain the glorious liberty of the children of God.”
The hope of the fallen creation lies in the “revelation of the sons of God:” Jesus Christ and those ruling with him in the Messianic Kingdom, the purpose of which is to restore all things to the original standards of God. From this we can see that the passage in Hebrews is tying the plan of salvation to the renewal of the creation.
[Such is not unusual. For example, Matthew re-applies Hosea 11:1 to Jesus even though it contextually applies to Israel. (Matthew 2:15)]
This understanding is supported seven verses later where the writer of Hebrews 2:5 mentions
“the inhabited world that is about to come (about which we are speaking)…”
Philippians 2:5-8
Next, we will examine Philippians 2:5-8. This passage of scripture reads,
“For let this mind be in you which also in Christ Jesus was, who in a form of God subsisting, did not consider grasping equality with God, but emptied himself, having taken a form of a slave, having become in a likeness of men. And having been found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, having become obedient unto death, even death of a cross.”
From this a couple of questions can be asked. First, what does the phrase “a form of God” [33] mean?
[Throughout this passage most translations use the definite article “the” where the Greek does not. Neither do we.]
To trinitarians it bespeaks Christ’s membership in the trinity. To Arian Christians it indicates Christ’s pre-human existence in the spirit realm.
The contrast here is between “form of God” and “form of a slave,” not form of God and form of a man. So, this is not a question of nature, essence, or substance, but of status. Slaves have the lowest status in the social order. As God’s special representative Jesus possessed the highest status in the social order. So, what does “form of God” mean? In Exodus 4:16 Yahweh tells Moses,
“He [Aaron] shall be a mouth for you, and you shall be to him as God”
and at Exodus 7:1,
“See, I make you like God to Pharoah.”
Yahweh even gave Moses miraculous powers to prove that He had sent him.
Was Jesus not sent as God’s chief representative, one even greater than Moses? Did he not have miraculous powers, even authority to control the weather and to command legions of angels? So, he did have “a form of God” while on earth; yet he “emptied himself.” That is, he did not use these powers and authority to save himself from degrading treatment by sinners and a horrible death. (Matthew 8:23-27; 26:53- 54)
The next question we could ask is, if Jesus did not exist in the spirit realm before his birth on earth, why does the text speak of his “having become in a likeness of men” and of his being “found in fashion as a man.”
Romans 8:3 tells us,
“For what the Law was not able to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God having sent his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and concerning sin, condemned sin in the flesh.”
And Hebrews 2:14, 17-18,
“Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he [Jesus] himself likewise partook of the same things, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death …Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, … to make expiation for the sins of the people…”
These passages show that it was necessary for our Savior to share in our humanity to bring about our salvation. It is this fact which is the point of emphasis in these phrases.
John 1:1-18
Next, we will consider the Prologue to John’s gospel. The following is a very literal rendering of portions of John 1:1-18,
1 In beginning was the Word, and the Word was toward the God, and God the Word was. 2 This was in beginning toward the God. 3 All through him became, and without him became but not one [thing] that had become…10 In the world he was, and the world through him became…, 12 As many as but took him, he gave to them authority [as] children of God to become, to the ones trusting into the name of him … 14 And the Word flesh became and he tented among us… 15 John testifies concerning him… ‘this was whom I said; the one after me coming in front of me has become, because first of me he was… 18 God no one has seen ever yet; only begotten God the one being in the lap of the Father that one explained.
Who or what is the “Word” and to what “beginning” does the first and second verses point? Psalms 33:6 informs us, “By the word of Yahweh the heavens were made, and by the breath of His mouth all their host.”
Here we find that the creative power of God lies in His spoken word. He “calls into existence the things that do not exist;” God speaks, and things happen! (Romans 4:17)
John 1:1 causes us to reflect on the creation event of Genesis 1; a creation which makes manifest the glory, power, and wisdom of our Creator. (Romans 1:19-20) But, with the repetition of “beginning” in verse two John wants us to look forward, to give attention to the purposes of God, and to the success of those purposes, in accord with Isaiah 55:11 wherein Yahweh declared,
“So shall My word be that goes out from My mouth; it shall not return to Me empty, but it shall accomplish that which I purpose, and shall succeed in the thing for which I sent it.”
Above we asked, ‘To what beginning does John point?’ Though we have seen that the quotes cited suggest the creation of Genesis 1, we have, however, good reason to look beyond that for a greater application. Give consideration to what the gospel writer records at John 15:27, where Jesus says to his disciples, “And you will bear witness, because you have been with me from the beginning.” and at John 16:4 “I did not say these things to you from the beginning, because I was with you.”
And 1 John 1:1-2 where John writes,
“That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life — the life was made manifest, and we have seen it, and testify to it and proclaim to you the everlasting life, which was with the Father and was made manifest to us.”
And at 1 John 2:24 and 3:11, 125
“Let what you heard from the beginning abide in you. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, then you too will abide in the Son and in the Father. / For this is the message that you have heard from the beginning, that we should love one another.”
And at 2 John 1:5-6,
“…not as though I were writing you a new commandment, but the one we have had from the beginning — that we love one another. … this is the commandment, just as you heard from the beginning, so that you should walk in it.”
Jesus’ disciples were not with him from the beginning of creation. Rather, we see in all of these contexts the beginning refers to Jesus’ ministry.
But the evidence does not stop here. Let’s look at Mark 1:1 and Luke 1:2, “The beginning of the good news of Jesus Christ, the Son of God” and “…just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and minsters of the word have delivered them to us” and, finally, Acts 1:21-22 where the apostles were selecting a replacement for Judas Iscariot, “So one of the men who have accompanied us during all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us, beginning from the baptism of John…”
In all these contexts the beginning relates to the ministry of Jesus.
The only context in which John uses the word beginning to refer to the Genesis event is John 8:44 where he quotes Jesus, calling the devil a murderer. We have belabored the point here because it is necessary for the reader to understand that the beginning of John 1:1-2, though alluding to the old creation, is pointing to the new creation. This fact is borne out by John 1:12, “As many as but took him, he gave to them authority [as] children of God to become,…” Likewise, John 1:3 where it says that “All through him became, and without him became but not one [thing] that had become…” is referring to the things of the new creation, not the old creation. With this understanding, we can see that, though we still have a couple of points to examine below, John’s prologue does not compel the idea that Jesus had a pre-human existence before his conception.
But it could be asked, in saying that, “God the Word was,” does John intend to identify Jesus as “God”? Notice that the phrase does not read ‘the God the Word was,’ even though the phrases before and after do contain the definite article [“the”] before the word God. Without the definite article the predicate nominative [God] takes on a descriptive or qualitative function.
[NOTE : Trinitarians counter that the rules of Greek grammar do not require the definite article with a predicate nominative when the subject has it. Their claim is made suspect three verses later. John 1:4 reads literally, “the life was the light.” Here we find a subject and a predicate nominative with the same verb as verse 1, and each having the definite article. (However, in verse 1 the predicate precedes the subject and verb in the Greek text, and in verse 4 it follows the subject and verb.) With this view in mind this verse has a minority rendering as ‘the Word was divine’ or, more literally, ‘the Word was a god.’ At Exodus 7:1 God Himself calls Moses God! How has Jesus described God? Though no man has ever seen God, we can know a great deal of what He is like through His only-begotten Son. The intimacy that Jesus was able to share with his Father during his ministry made him able to reflect His many qualities — such as love, mercifulness, patience, righteousness, justice, and wisdom — so well that John 1:18 may refer to him as the “only-begotten God.” Like Father, like Son! Moses “God.” The NET Bible interpolates the word “like” explaining in a footnote: “The word ‘like’ is added for clarity, making explicit the implied comparison in the statement ‘I have made you God to Pharoah.’ The word ‘elohim is used a few times in the Bible for humans (e.g. Pss. 45:6; 82:1), and always clearly in the sense of a subordinate to GOD — they are his representatives on earth …” Since the grammar suggests the Word is not being identified as God in John 1:1, the best rendering to convey the correct understanding to the modern English reader might be ‘the Word was like God.’]
[NOTE : Some Greek manuscripts read here only-begotten Son, others read only-begotten God. Textual critics have made interesting arguments on both sides of the question.]
In John’s prologue, we see that John used the term “Word” to demonstrate that Jesus was the embodiment of the prophetic word of God (“the Word flesh became,” v. 14), fulfilling hundreds of prophecies, the first being recorded at Genesis 3:15, and to designate Jesus as God’s chief spokesman. (Hebrews 1:1, 2) What does John mean where he writes, “the Word was toward the God,” (vs. 1, 2)? The purpose of both the written Word of God and the incarnate Word of God is to direct attention to the Father, and has reached its culmination by bringing us toward God with reconciliation through the blood of Jesus’ cross. (Colossians 1:20)
Thus, we find in John’s prologue not only a reflection of creation history, but also the portending of the new creation. In verse 15 of the prologue John the baptist says that Jesus “coming in front of me has become, because first of me he was.”
The statement concerning Jesus as “coming in front of me” is an expression of his greater importance. No Christian challenges the fact that Jesus was more important than John the baptist. But if Jesus did not exist before his conception, how was he “first of” (that is, ‘before’) John who was conceived six months earlier? Simple. Jesus’ role in God’s scheme of things was determined before creation and was first hinted at in Genesis 3:15. John’s role was not revealed until much later during the times of Isaiah and Malachi. (Isaiah 40:3; Malachi 3:1) And, finally, we must examine a phrase from John 1:10 which reads, “and the world through him became.” Surely, this compels us to believe that Jesus literally pre-existed the Genesis creation and was actively instrumental in that event. Or does it? As we noted above when we were discussing Colossians 1:15-17 God’s scheme of creation could only be accomplished with the implementation of His plan of salvation, the foundation of which was Jesus Christ. It is in this sense that it can be said that this “world through him” came into being. Thus, we see that John’s prologue does not compel us to accept either the trinity doctrine, or the pre-human existence view.
John 8:23
A couple of statements that Jesus made which cause some people problems in accepting the truth of his nature is John 8:23 and 8:56-58. The principles we have already discussed help us to understand the situation here. At John 8:23 Jesus said to his opposers, “You are out of beneath, I am out of above; you are out of this world, I am not out of this world.” Here again we find Jesus speaking of himself as being “out of [ek] above.” In view of our discussion of John 6 one may object that now he is claiming to be “out of” the heavenly realm. Note, however, that a few verses before, in John 8:18, Jesus comments that he was sent [37 ] by his 37 There are some who point out this fact to prove that Jesus had a pre-human existence, ‘He had to exist to be sent.’ But according to John 1:6 John the baptist 132 Father. Using the expression “out of” emphasizes his connection with his Father, his purpose being derived out of that Source. This principle can be noted later in this same chapter. Concerning his opposers Jesus said in John 8:44, “You are out of [ek] your father, the devil.” Do those who use John 8:23 to support their belief in the pre-human existence of Jesus teach that his opposers pre-existed with Satan before being born on earth?
John 8:56-58
Arian Christians see Jesus as claiming a pre-human existence at John 8:56-58. In verse 53 Jesus’ enemies asked him, “Are you greater than our father Abraham, who died?…Who do you make yourself out to be?” was also sent from God. Yet, this John is not held to be living in heaven before he was born on earth. This conversation followed. Jesus replied, “‘Abraham your father rejoiced in that he should see my day, and he saw it and was glad.’ So the Jews said to him, ‘You are not yet fifty years old, and you have seen Abraham?’ Jesus said to them, ‘…before Abraham was, I am.’” (John 8:56- 58) His enemies misconstrued what he meant. Jesus said that Abraham had seen his “day” (v. 56). He said nothing about Abraham’s having seen him, nor anything about his having seen Abraham. So, Jesus’ reply here does not support a pre-human existence wherein Abraham or Jesus had seen the other. Jesus’ response “before Abraham was, I am” was an assertion of his pre-eminence over Abraham in the plan of God.
This self-exaltation by someone they considered a nobody was, in their opinion, a blasphemous degradation of Abraham, the father of the Jewish race and faith, as well as a prophet in special covenant with God.
[Jesus’ enemies may have understood him to mean something more; but that does not mean he intended something more.]
John 17:5
Finally, we shall consider John 17:5. Here Jesus said in prayer to his Father,
“And now glorify me, Father, with [Gk., para] Yourself, the glory which I had with [para] You before the world was.”
Certainly, it sounds here that Jesus had glory “with” God before his birth on earth, even before the world came into existence.
However, McReynolds’ Word Study Greek-English New Testament renders the preposition para as “from” in this verse, not as with. The KJV and other translations also render para as “from” or “of” in other verses: John 1:6, “sent from God”; 1:14, “only-begotten of the Father.” “From” makes sense in these verses as well as John 17:5.
If we substitute “from” into John 17:5, it would read, “And now glorify me, Father, from Yourself, the glory which I had from You before the world was.” Such a rendering does not suggest that Jesus had a pre-human existence. Rather, God had pre-determined “before the world was” to glorify Jesus for his obedience to the death, thereby, consummating the plan of salvation, even as Philippians 2:9-11 says,
“Therefore, God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”
At Romans 9:23 Paul refers to Christians as “vessels of mercy, which [God] has prepared beforehand for glory.” Earlier at Romans 8:30 he wrote that 40 Jesus’ receiving of a ‘name above every name’ does not mean he becomes greater than God. See 1 Corinthians 15:27, which makes explicit that which commonsense should make known to all and “those whom [God] justified he also glorified.” If it can be said that Christians were “prepared beforehand for glory,” how much more glorious was the beforehand preparation of the Messiah! If we who are still sinful can be spoken of as having been “glorified,” how glorified must that sinless man have been through whom our glory comes!
Near the close of his prayer Jesus says, “The glory which You have given me I have given to them.” (John 17:22) Just as we have been given this glory in prospect of salvation, so too, Jesus was given a glorious role in God’s scheme of creation “before the world was,” even before his own existence.
Would you not, dear reader, like to obtain for yourself the glory which Jesus has given his followers as spoken of above? In opening this prayer he prayed,
“And this is everlasting life, that they know You the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.” (John 17:3)
By applying yourself to Bible study and prayer you, too, may come to know Jesus, the only-begotten Son, as the only way to the Father. He, by successfully meeting the test of temptation in the flesh, has become qualified to be our Savior, High Priest, and Mediator. You, by faithfully and humbly following him, can share in the glorious liberty of the children of God! (John 17:3; 14:6; 1 John 4:14; Hebrews 2:17-18; 4:15- 16; 12:24; Galatians 5:1; John 1:12-13; Romans 8:19- 25)